• If you are having trouble changng your password please click here for help.

Father shoots 17 year old daughters BF in her bed. She told dad she didn't know him.

A stranger is in his daughter's bed. His daughter is frightened. He tells the stranger "Don't Move!" The stranger reaches for something, his daughter screams and ducks and moves away from the stranger. Instead of holding at gunpoint, finger off the trigger and demanding hands and conversation...the girls's dad fired. Big mess!

Actually, he did try and hold the kid rather than shoot him, but when told not to move the kid argued and moved anyway.
 
The argument about whether or not the father made a good shoot is over. I'm not discussing his actions any longer. We're discussing whether or not the kid would have had the right to use force. Rehashing why you gave the father the benefit of the doubt provides no insight into your reasoning for NOT giving the kid the same benefit of the doubt.

Look up O.C.G.A. 16-3-20 which includes all legal defenses for the use of force. Let me know if you find a defense for the guy who was shot.
 
Or he believed his or his daughters life was in imminent danger. I can easily believe he did believe that.

So what if the kid shot him? The kid "reasonably believed" his life was in danger and, considering he was invited over by an occupant of the home, he "reasonably believed" that he was there lawfully, yeah?
 
Or he believed his or his daughters life was in imminent danger. I can easily believe he did believe that.

There's no doubt about it. I just wonder if going straight to "death penalty" in a situation like that is always the correct course of action. I wasn't there, so I don't know.
 
Because you are now asking about a hypothetical that did not occur. It seemed to be a pertinent version of your question.

I didn't ask it, for the record, but I'm interested in hearing the responses if we go down the path. Could the kid have used lethal force against the home owner pointing a gun at him?
 
Back
Top Bottom